Preparing for JEE Main Chemistry can feel overwhelming, especially with the vast syllabus and intense competition. This is where JEE Mains Previous Year Questions (PYQ) Chemistry become a game-changer. PYQs help students understand the real exam pattern, important chapters, question trends, and difficulty level — all in one place.
For students targeting a high score in JEE Main, solving chemistry PYQs is one of the smartest strategies. It not only strengthens conceptual clarity but also improves speed, accuracy, and confidence. Whether you are struggling with Physical Chemistry numericals, Organic reaction mechanisms, or Inorganic memory-based questions, PYQs guide you on what truly matters for the exam.
This collection of JEE Mains PYQ Chemistry questions with answers is specially designed for serious aspirants who want focused, exam-oriented preparation without wasting time on less important topics.
JEE Mains PYQ Chemistry with Answers and Solutions
Q1. Which of the following has the highest lattice energy?
- A. NaCl
- B. KCl
- C. MgO
- D. CaO
Explanation: Lattice energy increases with higher ionic charge and smaller ionic size. MgO has +2 and −2 charges, so it has the highest lattice energy.
Q2. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is:
- A. HF < HCl < HBr < HI
- B. HI < HBr < HCl < HF
- C. HCl < HF < HBr < HI
- D. HF < HBr < HCl < HI
Explanation: Acidic strength of hydrogen halides increases down the group due to decreasing bond dissociation energy.
Q3. Which of the following is an intensive property?
- A. Mass
- B. Volume
- C. Density
- D. Number of moles
Explanation: Intensive properties do not depend on the amount of substance present, unlike mass and volume.
Q4. Which orbital has the highest penetrating power?
- A. 2p
- B. 3s
- C. 3p
- D. 4s
Explanation: Penetrating power follows the order s > p > d > f and increases with principal quantum number for s-orbitals.
Q5. The oxidation state of chromium in K2Cr2O7 is:
- A. +3
- B. +6
- C. +4
- D. +2
Explanation: Chromium shows +6 oxidation state in dichromate ion (Cr2O72−).
Q6. Which of the following gases shows maximum deviation from ideal behavior?
- A. H2
- B. He
- C. NH3
- D. N2
Explanation: NH3 shows strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding, causing maximum deviation from ideal gas behavior.
Q7. Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?
- A. Osmotic pressure
- B. Boiling point elevation
- C. Freezing point depression
- D. Surface tension
Explanation: Colligative properties depend only on the number of solute particles, not on their nature. Surface tension is not one of them.
Q8. Which reagent is used to distinguish between aldehydes and ketones?
- A. Fehling’s solution
- B. Benedict’s solution
- C. Tollen’s reagent
- D. All of these
Explanation: Aldehydes give positive tests with Fehling’s, Benedict’s, and Tollen’s reagents, while ketones do not.
Q9. Which quantum number determines the shape of an orbital?
- A. Principal quantum number
- B. Azimuthal quantum number
- C. Magnetic quantum number
- D. Spin quantum number
Explanation: The azimuthal (l) quantum number defines the shape of the orbital (s, p, d, f).
Q10. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?
- A. Acetic acid
- B. Ammonium hydroxide
- C. Sodium chloride
- D. Glucose
Explanation: NaCl completely dissociates in aqueous solution, hence it is a strong electrolyte.
Q11. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
- A. NH3
- B. H2O
- C. CO2
- D. SO2
Explanation: CO2 is linear and symmetrical, so the dipole moments cancel out.
Q12. Which element shows maximum electronegativity?
- A. Oxygen
- B. Nitrogen
- C. Fluorine
- D. Chlorine
Explanation: Fluorine has the smallest atomic size and highest effective nuclear charge, giving maximum electronegativity.
Q13. The unit of rate constant for a first-order reaction is:
- A. mol L−1 s−1
- B. L mol−1 s−1
- C. s−1
- D. mol L−1
Explanation: For first-order reactions, the rate constant depends only on time.
Q14. Which of the following compounds shows hydrogen bonding?
- A. CH4
- B. NH3
- C. HCl
- D. PH3
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding occurs when H is bonded to highly electronegative atoms like N, O, or F.
Q15. Which gas is used in the manufacture of ammonia by Haber process?
- A. NO
- B. N2
- C. N2O
- D. NO2
Explanation: Ammonia is produced by reacting nitrogen with hydrogen under high pressure and temperature.
Q16. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
- A. NH3
- B. OH−
- C. BF3
- D. H2O
Explanation: BF3 can accept an electron pair, hence it is a Lewis acid.
Q17. Which of the following is an example of an exothermic reaction?
- A. Evaporation of water
- B. Photosynthesis
- C. Combustion of methane
- D. Melting of ice
Explanation: Combustion reactions release heat energy, making them exothermic.
Q18. Which of the following is NOT an allotrope of carbon?
- A. Diamond
- B. Graphite
- C. Fullerene
- D. Quartz
Explanation: Quartz is an allotrope of silicon dioxide, not carbon.
Q19. What is the oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4?
- A. +4
- B. +5
- C. +6
- D. −2
Explanation: In sulfuric acid, sulfur shows its highest oxidation state of +6.
Q20. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
- A. PVC
- B. Nylon-6,6
- C. Teflon
- D. PHBV
Explanation: PHBV is a biodegradable polymer used as an eco-friendly plastic.
Q21. Which factor does NOT affect the rate of a chemical reaction?
- A. Temperature
- B. Concentration
- C. Catalyst
- D. Atomic number
Explanation: Atomic number does not directly influence the reaction rate.
Q22. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
- A. Methane
- B. Ethane
- C. Propane
- D. Butane
Explanation: Boiling point increases with molecular mass due to stronger van der Waals forces.
Q23. Which orbital is filled first according to Aufbau principle?
- A. 3p
- B. 4s
- C. 3d
- D. 4p
Explanation: According to Aufbau principle, lower energy orbitals are filled first, so 4s fills before 3d.
Q24. Which of the following solutions will show maximum osmotic pressure?
- A. 0.1 M glucose
- B. 0.1 M NaCl
- C. 0.1 M CaCl2
- D. 0.1 M urea
Explanation: CaCl2 dissociates into three ions, giving maximum osmotic pressure.
Q25. Which reagent gives a silver mirror test?
- A. Fehling’s solution
- B. Benedict’s solution
- C. Tollen’s reagent
- D. Schiff’s reagent
Explanation: Aldehydes reduce Tollen’s reagent to form a silver mirror.
Q26. Which of the following is a noble gas?
- A. Nitrogen
- B. Oxygen
- C. Neon
- D. Chlorine
Explanation: Neon belongs to Group 18 and is chemically inert.
Q27. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:
- A. 0
- B. 7
- C. 14
- D. 1
Explanation: At 25°C, pure water has equal H+ and OH− concentration, giving pH 7.
Q28. Which metal is extracted by electrolytic reduction?
- A. Iron
- B. Copper
- C. Aluminium
- D. Zinc
Explanation: Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis of molten alumina (Hall-Héroult process).
Q29. Which of the following is a weak acid?
- A. HCl
- B. HNO3
- C. CH3COOH
- D. H2SO4
Explanation: Acetic acid partially ionizes in aqueous solution, making it a weak acid.
Q30. Which type of isomerism is shown by but-2-ene?
- A. Chain isomerism
- B. Position isomerism
- C. Functional isomerism
- D. Geometrical isomerism
Explanation: But-2-ene shows cis-trans isomerism due to restricted rotation around C=C bond.
Q31. Which of the following has maximum bond order?
- A. O2
- B. O2+
- C. O2−
- D. O22−
Explanation: Removal of one electron from antibonding orbital increases bond order, making O2+ highest.
Q32. Which of the following solutions acts as a buffer?
- A. HCl + NaCl
- B. NaOH + NaCl
- C. CH3COOH + CH3COONa
- D. HCl + NaOH
Explanation: A buffer contains a weak acid and its conjugate base.
Q33. Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?
- A. 2-chloropropane
- B. 2-bromobutane
- C. Ethanol
- D. Propene
Explanation: It contains a chiral carbon attached to four different groups.
Q34. The IUPAC name of CH3–CH(CH3)–CH2–OH is:
- A. Butan-1-ol
- B. 2-methylpropan-1-ol
- C. 2-methylbutan-1-ol
- D. Propan-2-ol
Explanation: Longest chain has three carbons with a methyl substituent at carbon 2.
Q35. Which of the following is an example of heterogeneous catalysis?
- A. Acid hydrolysis of ester
- B. Decomposition of H2O2 by MnO2
- C. Oxidation of SO2 by NO
- D. Inversion of cane sugar
Explanation: Catalyst (solid MnO2) and reactant are in different phases.
Q36. Which law explains the behavior of ideal gases at low pressure?
- A. Boyle’s law
- B. Charles’ law
- C. Avogadro’s law
- D. All of these
Explanation: Ideal gas behavior is explained by all gas laws under low pressure conditions.
Q37. Which of the following ores is concentrated by froth flotation?
- A. Bauxite
- B. Calamine
- C. Galena
- D. Magnetite
Explanation: Froth flotation is used for concentration of sulphide ores like galena (PbS).
Q38. Which of the following shows maximum paramagnetism?
- A. Fe2+
- B. Fe3+
- C. Co2+
- D. Ni2+
Explanation: Fe3+ has five unpaired electrons, giving maximum paramagnetism.
Q39. Which of the following compounds will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?
- A. CH3Cl
- B. C2H5Cl
- C. (CH3)3CCl
- D. C6H5Cl
Explanation: Tertiary carbocation is most stable, favoring SN1 reaction.
Q40. Which of the following is a primary alcohol?
- A. Methanol
- B. Isopropyl alcohol
- C. tert-Butyl alcohol
- D. Neopentyl alcohol
Explanation: In methanol, –OH group is attached to a primary carbon atom.
Q41. Which of the following is NOT a state function?
- A. Enthalpy
- B. Entropy
- C. Internal energy
- D. Work
Explanation: Work depends on the path followed, hence it is a path function.
Q42. Which of the following reagents converts alcohol into aldehyde?
- A. KMnO4
- B. K2Cr2O7
- C. PCC
- D. NaBH4
Explanation: PCC oxidizes primary alcohols to aldehydes without further oxidation.
Q43. Which of the following has tetrahedral geometry?
- A. NH3
- B. CH4
- C. BF3
- D. CO2
Explanation: Methane has sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral shape.
Q44. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing agent?
- A. SO2
- B. H2S
- C. KMnO4
- D. CO
Explanation: Potassium permanganate is a powerful oxidizing agent.
Q45. Which of the following polymers is used in non-stick cookware?
- A. PVC
- B. Nylon-6
- C. Bakelite
- D. Teflon
Explanation: Teflon (PTFE) has a very low coefficient of friction and high thermal stability.
Q46. Which type of solid is NaCl?
- A. Molecular solid
- B. Metallic solid
- C. Ionic solid
- D. Covalent solid
Explanation: NaCl consists of Na+ and Cl− ions held by electrostatic forces.
Q47. Which of the following colligative properties is used to determine molar mass?
- A. Osmotic pressure
- B. Surface tension
- C. Viscosity
- D. Refractive index
Explanation: Osmotic pressure measurements are commonly used for determining molar mass of macromolecules.
Q48. Which of the following has maximum s-character?
- A. sp
- B. sp2
- C. sp3
- D. dsp2
Explanation: sp hybridization has 50% s-character, which is maximum.
Q49. Which gas is released when zinc reacts with dilute HCl?
- A. Oxygen
- B. Nitrogen
- C. Hydrogen
- D. Carbon dioxide
Explanation: Zinc reacts with dilute HCl to produce ZnCl2 and H2 gas.
Q50. Which of the following is an example of coordination compound?
- A. NaCl
- B. K4[Fe(CN)6]
- C. CaCO3
- D. NH4Cl
Explanation: It contains a complex ion with coordinate covalent bonds between Fe and CN ligands.
Q51. Which of the following has the highest ionization enthalpy?
- A. Na
- B. Mg
- C. Al
- D. Si
Explanation: Ionization enthalpy increases across a period due to increasing nuclear charge; silicon is highest among given elements.
Q52. The hybridization of carbon in ethyne is:
- A. sp3
- B. sp2
- C. sp
- D. dsp2
Explanation: In ethyne (C≡C), carbon forms a triple bond and is sp hybridized.
Q53. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?
- A. Sucrose
- B. Maltose
- C. Cellulose
- D. Starch
Explanation: Maltose has a free aldehyde group and shows reducing properties.
Q54. Which of the following compounds shows resonance?
- A. Ethane
- B. Benzene
- C. Methane
- D. Ethanol
Explanation: Benzene has delocalized π-electrons and exhibits resonance.
Q55. Which of the following is a strong base?
- A. NH4OH
- B. NaOH
- C. Aniline
- D. Pyridine
Explanation: Sodium hydroxide completely dissociates in water, making it a strong base.
Q56. Which of the following metals can displace hydrogen from dilute acids?
- A. Copper
- B. Silver
- C. Gold
- D. Zinc
Explanation: Zinc lies above hydrogen in the reactivity series and can displace hydrogen from acids.
Q57. Which of the following is NOT an ideal gas assumption?
- A. Gas molecules have negligible volume
- B. No intermolecular forces exist
- C. Collisions are perfectly elastic
- D. Gas molecules attract each other strongly
Explanation: Ideal gas assumes no intermolecular attraction between gas molecules.
Q58. Which of the following electrolytes has the highest van’t Hoff factor?
- A. NaCl
- B. KCl
- C. CaCl2
- D. Glucose
Explanation: CaCl2 dissociates into three ions, giving maximum van’t Hoff factor.
Q59. Which of the following shows cis–trans isomerism?
- A. Ethene
- B. Propene
- C. But-2-ene
- D. Ethyne
Explanation: Restricted rotation around the C=C bond causes cis–trans isomerism in but-2-ene.
Q60. Which catalyst is used in the Contact process?
- A. Iron
- B. Nickel
- C. Platinum
- D. Vanadium pentoxide
Explanation: V2O5 is used as a catalyst in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by Contact process.
Q61. Which of the following compounds is aromatic?
- A. Cyclohexane
- B. Cyclobutadiene
- C. Benzene
- D. Cyclohexene
Explanation: Benzene follows Huckel’s rule (4n+2 π electrons), making it aromatic.
Q62. Which of the following is a secondary alcohol?
- A. Methanol
- B. Ethanol
- C. Isopropyl alcohol
- D. Neopentyl alcohol
Explanation: The –OH group is attached to a secondary carbon atom in isopropyl alcohol.
Q63. Which of the following is used to detect nitrogen in organic compounds?
- A. Lassaigne’s test
- B. Fehling’s test
- C. Baeyer’s test
- D. Lucas test
Explanation: Lassaigne’s test is used to detect nitrogen, sulfur, and halogens in organic compounds.
Q64. Which of the following elements shows variable oxidation states?
- A. Sodium
- B. Magnesium
- C. Iron
- D. Calcium
Explanation: Transition metals like iron show variable oxidation states due to involvement of d-electrons.
Q65. Which of the following reactions is first order?
- A. Decomposition of NH4NO2
- B. Decomposition of H2O2
- C. Hydrolysis of ester
- D. Combination of H2 and I2
Explanation: Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide follows first-order kinetics.
Q66. Which of the following is a thermoplastic polymer?
- A. Bakelite
- B. Melamine
- C. PVC
- D. Urea-formaldehyde
Explanation: PVC softens on heating and can be reshaped, making it a thermoplastic polymer.
Q67. Which of the following solutions has pH less than 7?
- A. NaCl
- B. NH4Cl
- C. Na2CO3
- D. NaOH
Explanation: NH4Cl is a salt of strong acid and weak base, giving acidic solution.
Q68. Which of the following has octahedral geometry?
- A. SF4
- B. NH3
- C. SF6
- D. BF3
Explanation: SF6 has sp3d2 hybridization and octahedral geometry.
Q69. Which of the following is used as an antifreeze?
- A. Methanol
- B. Ethanol
- C. Ethylene glycol
- D. Glycerol
Explanation: Ethylene glycol lowers the freezing point of water and is used as antifreeze.
Q70. Which of the following compounds gives positive iodoform test?
- A. Ethanol
- B. Methanol
- C. Acetic acid
- D. Formic acid
Explanation: Ethanol contains the –CH3CH(OH)– group and gives positive iodoform test.
Q71. Which of the following has the highest electron affinity?
- A. Oxygen
- B. Fluorine
- C. Chlorine
- D. Nitrogen
Explanation: Chlorine has the highest electron affinity due to its optimal atomic size and effective nuclear charge.
Q72. The shape of XeF4 molecule is:
- A. Tetrahedral
- B. Square planar
- C. Octahedral
- D. Trigonal bipyramidal
Explanation: XeF4 has two lone pairs and four bond pairs, giving a square planar shape.
Q73. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
- A. Glucose
- B. Fructose
- C. Maltose
- D. Sucrose
Explanation: In sucrose, both anomeric carbons are involved in glycosidic bond, so it is non-reducing.
Q74. Which of the following reagents is used for nitration of benzene?
- A. Conc. HNO3
- B. Dil. HNO3
- C. Conc. HNO3 + Conc. H2SO4
- D. Dil. HNO3 + HCl
Explanation: Mixed acid generates nitronium ion (NO2+) required for nitration.
Q75. Which of the following is an intensive property?
- A. Mass
- B. Volume
- C. Internal energy
- D. Temperature
Explanation: Intensive properties do not depend on the amount of substance present.
Q76. Which of the following is a false statement about catalysts?
- A. Catalyst alters the rate of reaction
- B. Catalyst changes equilibrium constant
- C. Catalyst remains unchanged chemically
- D. Catalyst lowers activation energy
Explanation: Catalyst does not change equilibrium constant; it only speeds up attainment of equilibrium.
Q77. Which metal is used as a catalyst in hydrogenation of oils?
- A. Iron
- B. Copper
- C. Nickel
- D. Zinc
Explanation: Finely divided nickel acts as a catalyst in hydrogenation reactions.
Q78. Which of the following compounds shows hydrogen bonding with itself?
- A. CHCl3
- B. CCl4
- C. HF
- D. H2S
Explanation: HF forms strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding due to high electronegativity of fluorine.
Q79. Which of the following is a primary amine?
- A. (CH3)3N
- B. (CH3)2NH
- C. CH3NH2
- D. Aniline salt
Explanation: Primary amines have one alkyl group attached to nitrogen.
Q80. Which of the following reactions is an example of redox reaction?
- A. Neutralization
- B. Precipitation
- C. Combustion
- D. Hydrolysis
Explanation: Combustion involves oxidation and reduction simultaneously.
Q81. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
- A. O2
- B. NO
- C. N2
- D. Fe3+
Explanation: N2 has all electrons paired and is diamagnetic.
Q82. Which of the following is used in dry cleaning?
- A. Methanol
- B. Ethanol
- C. Benzene
- D. Tetrachloroethylene
Explanation: Tetrachloroethylene is commonly used as a solvent in dry cleaning.
Q83. Which of the following salts gives basic solution in water?
- A. NH4Cl
- B. NaCl
- C. Na2CO3
- D. KCl
Explanation: It is a salt of strong base and weak acid, producing basic solution.
Q84. Which of the following is an example of electrophile?
- A. NH3
- B. OH−
- C. NO2+
- D. CN−
Explanation: Electrophiles are electron-deficient species that accept electron pairs.
Q85. Which of the following is used in vulcanization of rubber?
- A. Oxygen
- B. Nitrogen
- C. Sulfur
- D. Chlorine
Explanation: Sulfur forms cross-links between rubber chains during vulcanization.
Q86. Which of the following follows zero-order kinetics?
- A. Decomposition of NH3 on tungsten surface
- B. Decomposition of H2O2
- C. Radioactive decay
- D. Ester hydrolysis
Explanation: Surface-catalyzed reactions often follow zero-order kinetics.
Q87. Which of the following shows maximum hydrogen bonding?
- A. H2O
- B. HF
- C. NH3
- D. H2S
Explanation: HF has strongest hydrogen bonding due to high electronegativity and small size of fluorine.
Q88. Which of the following is an example of biodegradable polymer?
- A. Nylon-6,6
- B. PVC
- C. PHBV
- D. Bakelite
Explanation: PHBV is a biodegradable polymer used as an eco-friendly plastic.
Q89. Which of the following compounds will give cannizzaro reaction?
- A. Acetaldehyde
- B. Formaldehyde
- C. Acetone
- D. Propanal
Explanation: Aldehydes without alpha hydrogen undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
Q90. Which of the following is used as a bleaching agent?
- A. SO2
- B. CO
- C. NH3
- D. HCl
Explanation: Sulfur dioxide acts as a reducing bleaching agent for delicate materials.
Q91. Which quantum number determines the shape of an orbital?
- A. Principal quantum number (n)
- B. Azimuthal quantum number (l)
- C. Magnetic quantum number (m)
- D. Spin quantum number (s)
Explanation: The azimuthal quantum number decides the shape of orbitals like s, p, d, and f.
Q92. Which of the following shows maximum paramagnetism?
- A. N2
- B. O2
- C. F2
- D. CO
Explanation: Oxygen has two unpaired electrons in antibonding orbitals, making it paramagnetic.
Q93. Which of the following has the highest lattice energy?
- A. NaCl
- B. KCl
- C. MgO
- D. CaO
Explanation: Higher charge and smaller ionic size increase lattice energy; MgO has +2 and −2 ions.
Q94. The IUPAC name of acetone is:
- A. Propanone
- B. Propanal
- C. Ethyl methanone
- D. Dimethyl ketone
Explanation: Acetone is a three-carbon ketone, hence named propanone.
Q95. Which gas is responsible for the greenhouse effect?
- A. Nitrogen
- B. Oxygen
- C. Carbon dioxide
- D. Helium
Explanation: CO2 absorbs infrared radiation and contributes to the greenhouse effect.
Q96. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
- A. NH3
- B. OH−
- C. BF3
- D. H2O
Explanation: BF3 can accept an electron pair, hence it is a Lewis acid.
Q97. The hybridization of carbon in ethyne is:
- A. sp
- B. sp2
- C. sp3
- D. dsp2
Explanation: Ethyne has a linear structure with sp hybridized carbon atoms.
Q98. Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?
- A. NH3
- B. H2O
- C. HF
- D. HCl
Explanation: HCl has weaker intermolecular forces compared to others.
Q99. Which of the following is an intensive property?
- A. Volume
- B. Mass
- C. Density
- D. Number of moles
Explanation: Intensive properties do not depend on the amount of substance present.
Q100. Which reagent is used to distinguish aldehyde from ketone?
- A. Fehling’s solution
- B. Tollens’ reagent
- C. Benedict’s solution
- D. All of these
Explanation: Aldehydes give positive tests with these reagents, ketones do not.
Q101. The oxidation state of chromium in K2Cr2O7 is:
- A. +3
- B. +4
- C. +6
- D. +7
Explanation: Chromium shows +6 oxidation state in dichromate ion.
Q102. Which compound shows geometrical isomerism?
- A. Ethene
- B. Propene
- C. But-2-ene
- D. Ethyne
Explanation: Restricted rotation and different groups on double-bonded carbons cause geometrical isomerism.
Q103. Which metal is extracted by electrolysis?
- A. Iron
- B. Copper
- C. Aluminium
- D. Zinc
Explanation: Aluminium is extracted by electrolytic reduction of alumina.
Q104. Which gas is used in the manufacture of ammonia by Haber process?
- A. Nitrogen and hydrogen
- B. Nitrogen and oxygen
- C. Hydrogen and oxygen
- D. Nitrogen and chlorine
Explanation: Ammonia is synthesized from N2 and H2 under high pressure.
Q105. Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?
- A. Acetic acid
- B. Glucose
- C. NaCl
- D. Urea
Explanation: NaCl completely dissociates into ions in aqueous solution.
Q106. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:
- A. 0
- B. 7
- C. 14
- D. 1
Explanation: At 25°C, neutral solutions have pH equal to 7.
Q107. Which of the following is a biodegradable pollutant?
- A. Plastic
- B. DDT
- C. Sewage
- D. Heavy metals
Explanation: Sewage can be decomposed by microorganisms naturally.
Q108. Which of the following is an example of a coordination compound?
- A. NaCl
- B. KCN
- C. [Cu(NH3)4]2+
- D. HCl
Explanation: Coordination compounds contain a central metal ion bonded to ligands.
Q109. Which reaction is an example of redox reaction?
- A. Neutralization
- B. Precipitation
- C. Combustion
- D. Hydrolysis
Explanation: Combustion involves simultaneous oxidation and reduction.
Q110. Which orbital has maximum penetration power?
- A. s-orbital
- B. p-orbital
- C. d-orbital
- D. f-orbital
Explanation: s-orbitals are closest to the nucleus and show maximum penetration.
In conclusion, practicing JEE Mains PYQ Chemistry is not just revision — it is a direct insight into the actual exam. Students who regularly solve previous year questions develop a clear understanding of high-weightage topics, repeated concepts, and smart problem-solving techniques.
If you are aiming to improve your chemistry score in JEE Main, make PYQs a daily part of your study routine. Analyze your mistakes, revise weak areas, and keep tracking your progress. Consistency with PYQ practice can significantly boost your confidence and performance on the final exam day.
Stay focused, keep practicing, and let previous year questions guide you toward your target JEE rank.
